Care of Communities: Community Health Nursing Questions & Answerrs

The community health nurse is providing information to a COPD support group. The nurse shares information about the Air Quality Index (AQI) and encourages clients to review the information and plan their outdoor activities accordingly. Which statement made by a member of the group indicates that effective teaching about the use of this resource? A) "I should plan my outdoor activities when the AQI conditions are symbolized by green." B) "I should plan my outdoor activities when the AQI conditions are symbolized by maroon." C) "I should plan my outdoor activities when the AQI conditions are symbolized by orange." D) "I should plan my outdoor activities when the AQI conditions are symbolized by red."

A

A patient who has symptoms of peptic ulcer disease will undergo a test that requires drinking a liquid containing 13C urea and breathing into a container. The nurse will explain to the patient that this test is performed to a. assess the level of hydrochloric acid. b. detect H. pylori antibodies. c. measure the pH of gastric secretions. d. test for the presence of 13CO2.

D When H. pylori is suspected, a noninvasive test is performed by administering 13C urea which, in the presence of H. pylori, will release 13CO2. The test does not measure the amount of HCl acid or the pH and does not detect H. pylori antibodies.

A patient with a peptic ulcer has been diagnosed with H. pylori. The provider has ordered lansoprazole (Prevacid), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and metronidazole (Flagyl). The patient asks the nurse why two antibiotics are needed. The nurse will explain that two antibiotics a. allow for less toxic dosing. b. combat bacterial resistance. c. have synergistic effects. d. improve acid suppression.

B The use of two antibiotics when treating H. pylori peptic ulcer disease helps to combat bacterial resistance because H. pylori develops resistance rapidly. Giving two antibiotics, in this case, is not to reduce the dose or to cause synergistic effects. Antibiotics do not affect acid production.

A patient who takes propantheline bromine (Pro-Banthine) and omeprazole (Prilosec) for an ulcer will begin taking an antacid. The nurse will give which instruction to the patient regarding how to take the antacid? a. Take the antacid 2 hours after taking the propantheline. b. Take the antacid along with a meal. c. Take the antacid with milk. d. Take the antacid with the propantheline bromine.

A Antacids can slow the absorption of anticholinergics and should be taken 2 hours after anticholinergic administration. Antacids should be given 1 to 3 hours after a meal and should not be given with dairy products.

A patient who is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease has been started on a regimen that includes ranitidine (Zantac) 300 mg daily at bedtime. The patient calls the clinic 1 week later to report no relief from discomfort. What action will the nurse take? a. Contact the provider to discuss changing to cimetidine (Tagamet). b. Notify the provider to discuss increasing the dose. c. Reassure the patient that the drug may take 1 to 2 weeks to be effective. d. Suggest that the patient split the medication into twice daily dosing.

C Patients taking histamine2 blockers can expect abdominal pain to decrease after 1 to 2 weeks of drug therapy. Cimetidine is not as potent as ranitidine and interacts with many medications through the cytochrome P450 system. Three hundred milligrams is the maximum dose.

A patient who has been taking ranitidine (Zantac) continues to have pain associated with peptic ulcer. A noninvasive breath test is negative. Which treatment does the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Adding an over-the-counter antacid to the patient's drug regimen b. A dual drug therapy regimen c. Amoxicillin (Amoxil), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and omeprazole (Prilosec) d. Lansoprazole (Prevacid) instead of ranitidine

D This patient does not have H. pylori ulcer disease, so dual and triple drug therapy with antibiotics is not indicated. Patients who fail treatment with a histamine2 blocker should be changed to a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as lansoprazole. PPIs tend to inhibit gastric acid secretion up to 90% greater than the histamine antagonists.

A patient has been taking famotidine (Pepcid) 20 mg bid to treat an ulcer but continues to have pain. The provider has ordered lansoprazole (Prevacid) 15 mg per day. The patient asks why the new drug is necessary, since it is more expensive. The nurse will explain that lansoprazole a. can be used for long-term therapy. b. does not interact with other drugs. c. has fewer medication side effects. d. is more potent than famotidine.

D Famotidine is a histamine2 (H2) blocker. When patients fail therapy with these agents, proton pump inhibitors, which can inhibit gastric acid secretion up to 90% greater than the H2 blockers, are used. Lansoprazole is not for long-term treatment and has drug interactions and drug side effects as do all other medications.

A patient is taking esomeprazole (Nexium) 15 mg per day to treat a duodenal ulcer. After 10 days of treatment, the patient reports that the pain has subsided. The nurse will counsel the patient to a. continue the medication for 4 more weeks. b. reduce the medication dose by half. c. stop taking the medication. d. take the medication every other day.

A With treatment, ulcer pain may subside in 10 days, but the healing process may take 1 to 2 months. Patients should be counseled to take the drug for the length of time prescribed. Reducing the dose or taking less frequently is not indicated.

The nurse is caring for a patient who will begin taking omeprazole (Prevacid) 20 mg per day for 4 to 8 weeks to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease esophagitis. The nurse learns that the patient takes digoxin. The nurse will contact the provider for orders to a. decrease the dose of omeprazole. b. increase the dose of digoxin. c. increase the omeprazole to 60 mg per day. d. monitor for digoxin toxicity.

D Proton pump inhibitors can enhance the effects of digoxin, so patients should be monitored for digoxin toxicity. Changing the dose of either medication is not indicated prior to obtaining lab results that are positive for digoxin toxicity.

A patient who recently began having mild symptoms of GERD is reluctant to take medication. What measures will the nurse recommend to minimize this patient's symptoms? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoiding hot, spicy foods b. Avoiding tobacco products c. Drinking a glass of red wine with dinner d. Eating a snack before bedtime e. Taking ibuprofen with food f. Using a small pillow for sleeping g. Wearing well-fitted clothing

A, B, E Hot, spicy foods aggravate gastric upset, tobacco increases gastric secretions, and ibuprofen on an empty stomach increases gastric secretions, so patients should be taught to avoid these actions. Alcohol should be avoided since it increases gastric secretions. Eating at bedtime increases reflux, as does laying relatively flat to sleep, or wearing fitted clothing.

A nurse assesses a client with peritonitis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Distended abdomen b. Inability to pass flatus c. Bradycardia d. Hyperactive bowel sounds e. Decreased urine output

A, B, E A client with peritonitis may present with a distended abdomen, diminished bowel sounds, inability to pass flatus or feces, tachycardia, and decreased urine output secondary to dehydration. Bradycardia and hyperactive bowel sounds are not associated with peritonitis.

A nurse teaches a community group about food poisoning and gastroenteritis. Which statements should the nurse include in this group's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Rotavirus is more common among infants and younger children." b. "Escherichia coli diarrhea is transmitted by contact with infected animals." c. "To prevent E. coli infection, don't drink water when swimming." d. "Clients who have botulism should be quarantined within their home." e. "Parasitic diseases may not show up for 1 to 2 weeks after infection."

A, C, E Rotavirus is more common among the youngest of clients. Not drinking water while swimming can help prevent E. coli infection. Parasitic diseases may take up to 2 weeks to become symptomatic. People with botulism need to be hospitalized to monitor for respiratory failure and paralysis. Escherichia coli is not transmitted by contact with infected animals.

A nurse teaches a community group ways to prevent Escherichia coli infection. Which statements should the nurse include in this group's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wash your hands after any contact with animals." b. "It is not necessary to buy a meat thermometer." c. "Stay away from people who are ill with diarrhea." d. "Use separate cutting boards for meat and vegetables." e. "Avoid swimming in backyard pools and using hot tubs."

A, D Washing hands after contact with animals and using separate cutting boards for meat and other foods will help prevent E. coli infection. The other statements are not related to preventing E. coli infection.

A nurse teaches a client how to avoid becoming ill with Salmonella infection again. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wash leafy vegetables carefully before eating or cooking them." b. "Do not ingest water from the garden hose or the pool." c. "Wash your hands before and after using the bathroom." d. "Be sure meat is cooked to the proper temperature." e. "Avoid eating eggs that are sunny side up or undercooked."

A, C, D, E Salmonella is usually contracted via contaminated eggs, beef, poultry, and green leafy vegetables. It is not transmitted through water in garden hoses or pools. Clients should wash leafy vegetables well, wash hands before and after using the restroom, make sure meat and eggs are cooked properly, and, because it can be transmitted by flies, keep flies off of food.

A nurse cares for a client who has food poisoning resulting from a Clostridium botulinum infection. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Heart rate and rhythm b. Bowel sounds c. Urinary output d. Respiratory rate

D Severe infection with C. botulinum can lead to respiratory failure, so assessments of oxygen saturation and respiratory rate are of high priority for clients with suspected C. botulinum infection. The other assessments may be completed after the respiratory system has been assessed.

A nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized for botulism. The client's vital signs are temperature: 99.8° F (37.6° C), heart rate: 100 beats/min, respiratory rate: 10 breaths/min, and blood pressure: 100/62 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take? a. Decrease stimulation and allow the client to rest. b. Stay with the client while another nurse calls the provider. c. Increase the client's intravenous fluid replacement rate. d. Check the client's blood glucose and administer orange juice.

B A client with botulism is at risk for respiratory failure. This client's respiratory rate is slow, which could indicate impending respiratory distress or failure. The nurse should remain with the client while another nurse notifies the provider. The nurse should monitor and document the IV infusion per protocol, but this client does not require additional intravenous fluids. Allowing the client to rest or checking the client's blood glucose and administering orange juice are not appropriate actions.

After teaching a client with perineal excoriation caused by diarrhea from acute gastroenteritis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I'll rinse my rectal area with warm water after each stool and apply zinc oxide ointment." b. "I will clean my rectal area thoroughly with toilet paper after each stool and then apply aloe vera gel." c. "I must take a sitz bath three times a day and then pat my rectal area gently but thoroughly to make sure I am dry." d. "I shall clean my rectal area with a soft cotton washcloth and then apply vitamin A and D ointment."

B Toilet paper can irritate the sensitive perineal skin, so warm water rinses or soft cotton washcloths should be used instead. Although aloe vera may facilitate healing of superficial abrasions, it is not an effective skin barrier for diarrhea. Skin barriers such as zinc oxide and vitamin A and D ointment help protect the rectal area from the excoriating effects of liquid stools. Patting the skin is recommended instead of rubbing the skin dry.

After teaching a client who was hospitalized for Salmonella food poisoning, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will let my husband do all of the cooking for my family." b. "I'll take the ciprofloxacin until the diarrhea has resolved." c. "I should wash my hands with antibacterial soap before each meal." d. "I must place my dishes into the dishwasher after each meal."

B Ciprofloxacin should be taken for 10 to 14 days to treat Salmonella infection, and should not be stopped once the diarrhea has cleared. Clients should be advised to take the entire course of medication. People with Salmonella should not prepare foods for others because the infection may be spread in this way. Hands should be washed with antibacterial soap before and after eating to prevent spread of the bacteria. Dishes and eating utensils should not be shared and should be cleaned thoroughly. Clients can be carriers for up to 1 year.

A nurse teaches a client who has viral gastroenteritis. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration." b. "You should only drink 1 liter of fluids daily." c. "Increase your protein intake by drinking more milk." d. "Sips of cola or tea may help to relieve your nausea."

A The client should drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration. Milk products may not be tolerated. Caffeinated beverages increase intestinal motility and should be avoided.

A nurse cares for an older adult client who has Salmonella food poisoning. The client's vital signs are heart rate: 102 beats/min, blood pressure: 98/55 mm Hg, respiratory rate: 22 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation: 92%. Which action should the nurse complete first? a. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Provide perineal care with a premedicated wipe. d. Teach proper food preparation to prevent contamination.

B Dehydration caused by diarrhea can occur quickly in older clients with Salmonella food poisoning, so maintenance of fluid balance is a high priority. Monitoring vital signs and providing perineal care are important nursing actions but are of lower priority than fluid replacement. The nurse should teach the client about proper hand hygiene to prevent the spread of infection, and preparation of food and beverages to prevent contamination.

A nurse assesses a client who has appendicitis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Severe, steady right lower quadrant pain b. Abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting c. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds d. Abdominal pain that increases with knee flexion

A Right lower quadrant pain, specifically at McBurney's point, is characteristic of appendicitis. Usually if nausea and vomiting begin first, the client has gastroenteritis. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds are not indicative of appendicitis. Abdominal pain due to appendicitis decreases with knee flexion.

After teaching a client who is prescribed adalimumab (Humira) for severe ulcerative colitis, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick." b. "I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning." c. "Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of this drug." d. "I must wash my hands after I play with my dog."

B Adalimumab (Humira) is an immune modulator that must be given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing.

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed mesalamine (Asacol) for ulcerative colitis. The client states, "I am having trouble swallowing this pill." Which action should the nurse take? a. Contact the clinical pharmacist and request the medication in suspension form. b. Empty the contents of the capsule into applesauce or pudding for administration. c. Ask the health care provider to prescribe the medication as an enema instead. d. Crush the pill carefully and administer it in applesauce or pudding.

C Asacol is the oral formula for mesalamine and is produced as an enteric-coated pill that should not be crushed, chewed, or broken. Asacol is not available as a suspension or elixir. If the client is unable to swallow the Asacol pill, a mesalamine enema (Rowasa) may be administered instead, with a provider's order.

A nurse assesses a client who has ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Inspection of oral mucosa b. Recent dietary intake c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Percussion of abdomen

C Although the client with severe diarrhea may experience skin irritation and hypovolemia, the client is most at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias secondary to potassium and magnesium loss from severe diarrhea. The client should have her or his electrolyte levels monitored, and electrolyte replacement may be necessary. Oral mucosa inspection, recent dietary intake, and abdominal percussion are important parts of physical assessment but are lower priority for this client than heart rate and rhythm.

A nurse cares for a client who has a Giardia infection. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client? a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) c. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) d. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

A Metronidazole is the drug of choice for a Giardia infection. Ciprofloxacin and ceftriaxone are antibiotics used for bacterial infections. Sulfasalazine is used for ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease.

A nurse cares for a client with ulcerative colitis. The client states, "I feel like I am tied to the toilet. This disease is controlling my life." How should the nurse respond? a. "Let's discuss potential factors that increase your symptoms." b. "If you take the prescribed medications, you will no longer have diarrhea." c. "To decrease distress, do not eat anything before you go out." d. "You must retake control of your life. I will consult a therapist to help."

A Clients with ulcerative colitis often express that the disorder is disruptive to their lives. Stress factors can increase symptoms. These factors should be identified so that the client will have more control over his or her condition. Prescription medications and anorexia will not eliminate exacerbations. Although a therapist may assist the client, this is not an appropriate response.

A nurse assesses a client with ulcerative colitis. Which complications are paired correctly with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding - Erosion of the bowel wall b. Abscess formation - Localized pockets of infection develop in the ulcerated bowel lining c. Toxic megacolon - Transmural inflammation resulting in pyuria and fecaluria d. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction - Paralysis of colon resulting from colorectal cancer e. Fistula - Dilation and colonic ileus caused by paralysis of the colon

A, B, D Lower GI bleeding can lead to erosion of the bowel wall. Abscesses are localized pockets of infection that develop in the ulcerated bowel lining. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction is paralysis of the colon that results from colorectal cancer. When the inflammation is transmural, fistulas can occur between the bowel and bladder resulting in pyuria and fecaluria. Paralysis of the colon causing dilation and subsequent colonic ileus is known as a toxic megacolon.

A nurse plans care for a client with Crohn's disease who has a heavily draining fistula. Which intervention should the nurse indicate as the priority action in this client's plan of care? a. Low-fiber diet b. Skin protection c. Antibiotic administration d. Intravenous glucocorticoids

B Protecting the client's skin is the priority action for a client who has a heavily draining fistula. Intestinal fluid enzymes are caustic and can cause skin breakdown or fungal infections if the skin is not protected. The plan of care for a client who has Crohn's disease includes adequate nutrition focused on high-calorie, high-protein, high-vitamin, and low-fiber meals, antibiotic administration, and glucocorticoids.

A nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Positive Murphy's sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night

C The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn's disease. A positive Murphy's sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds are not commonly found with Crohn's disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn's disease.

A nurse assesses a client with Crohn's disease and colonic strictures. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Distended abdomen b. Temperature of 100.0° F (37.8° C) c. Loose and bloody stool d. Lower abdominal cramps

A The presence of strictures predisposes the client to intestinal obstruction. Abdominal distention may indicate that the client has developed an obstruction of the large bowel, and the client's provider should be notified right away. Low-grade fever, bloody diarrhea, and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of Crohn's disease.

A nurse reviews the chart of a client who has Crohn's disease and a draining fistula. Which documentation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the provider for additional prescriptions? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L b. Client ate 20% of breakfast meal c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm3 d. Client's weight decreased by 3 pounds

A Fistulas place the client with Crohn's disease at risk for hypokalemia which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. This potassium level is low and should cause the nurse to intervene. The white blood cell count is normal. The other two findings are abnormal and also warrant intervention, but the potassium level takes priority.

After teaching a client with diverticular disease, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection made by the client indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. Roasted chicken with rice pilaf and a cup of coffee with cream b. Spaghetti with meat sauce, a fresh fruit cup, and hot tea c. Garden salad with a cup of bean soup and a glass of low-fat milk d. Baked fish with steamed carrots and a glass of apple juice

D Clients who have diverticular disease are prescribed a low-residue diet. Whole grains (rice pilaf), uncooked fruits and vegetables (salad, fresh fruit cup), and high-fiber foods (cup of bean soup) should be avoided with a low-residue diet. Canned or cooked vegetables are appropriate. Apple juice does not contain fiber and is acceptable for a low-residue diet.

After teaching a client who has diverticulitis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I'll ride my bike or take a long walk at least three times a week." b. "I must try to include at least 25 grams of fiber in my diet every day." c. "I will take a laxative nightly at bedtime to avoid becoming constipated." d. "I should use my legs rather than my back muscles when I lift heavy objects."

C Laxatives are not recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they can increase pressure in the bowel, causing additional outpouching of the lumen. Exercise and a high-fiber diet are recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they promote regular bowel function. Using the leg muscles rather than the back for lifting prevents abdominal straining.

A nurse cares for a teenage girl with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I cannot go to prom with an ostomy." How should the nurse respond? a. "Sure you can. Purchase a prom dress one size larger to hide the ostomy appliance." b. "The pouch won't be as noticeable if you avoid broccoli and carbonated drinks prior to the prom." c. "Let's talk to the enterostomal therapist about options for ostomy supplies and dress styles." d. "You can remove the pouch from your ostomy appliance when you are at the prom so that it is less noticeable."

C The ostomy nurse is a valuable resource for clients, providing suggestions for supplies and methods to manage the ostomy. A larger dress size will not necessarily help hide the ostomy appliance. Avoiding broccoli and carbonated drinks does not offer reassurance for the client. Ileostomies have an almost constant liquid effluent, so pouch removal during the prom is not feasible.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an ileostomy placement. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Pale and bluish stoma b. Liquid stool c. Ostomy pouch intact d. Blood-smeared output

A The nurse should assess the stoma for color and contact the health care provider if the stoma is pale, bluish, or dark. The nurse should expect the client to have an intact ostomy pouch with dark green liquid stool that may contain some blood.

A nurse cares for a client with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I don't think my friends will accept me with this ostomy." How should the nurse respond? a. "Your friends will be happy that you are alive." b. "Tell me more about your concerns." c. "A therapist can help you resolve your concerns." d. "With time you will accept your new body."

B Social anxiety and apprehension are common in clients with a new ileostomy. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss concerns. The nurse should not minimize the client's concerns or provide false reassurance.

After teaching a client who has a new colostomy, the nurse provides feedback based on the client's ability to complete self-care activities. Which statement should the nurse include in this feedback? a. "I realize that you had a tough time today, but it will get easier with practice." b. "You cleaned the stoma well. Now you need to practice putting on the appliance." c. "You seem to understand what I taught you today. What else can I help you with?" d. "You seem uncomfortable. Do you want your daughter to care for your ostomy?"

B The nurse should provide both approval and room for improvement in feedback after a teaching session. Feedback should be objective and constructive, and not evaluative. Reassuring the client that things will improve does not offer anything concrete for the client to work on, nor does it let him or her know what was done well. The nurse should not make the client convey learning needs because the client may not know what else he or she needs to understand. The client needs to become the expert in self-management of the ostomy, and the nurse should not offer to teach the daughter instead of the client.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an ileostomy placement. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Pale and bluish stoma b. Liquid stool c. Ostomy pouch intact d. Blood-smeared output

A The nurse should assess the stoma for color and contact the health care provider if the stoma is pale, bluish, or dark. The nurse should expect the client to have an intact ostomy pouch with dark green liquid stool that may contain some blood.

A nurse assessing a client with colorectal cancer auscultates high-pitched bowel sounds and notes the presence of visible peristaltic waves. Which action should the nurse take? a. Ask if the client is experiencing pain in the right shoulder. b. Perform a rectal examination and assess for polyps. c. Contact the provider and recommend computed tomography. d. Administer a laxative to increase bowel movement activity.

C The presence of visible peristaltic waves, accompanied by high-pitched or tingling bowel sounds, is indicative of partial obstruction caused by the tumor. The nurse should contact the provider with these results and recommend a computed tomography scan for further diagnostic testing. This assessment finding is not associated with right shoulder pain; peritonitis and cholecystitis are associated with referred pain to the right shoulder. The registered nurse is not qualified to complete a rectal examination for polyps, and laxatives would not help this client.

A nurse cares for a client who has been diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction. Which assessment findings should the nurse correlate with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L b. Loss of 15 pounds without dieting c. Abdominal pain in upper quadrants d. Low-pitched bowel sounds e. Serum sodium of 121 mEq/L

A, C, E Small bowel obstructions often lead to severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is hypokalemic (normal range is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L) and hyponatremic (normal range is 136 to 145 mEq/L). Abdominal pain across the upper quadrants is associated with small bowel obstruction. Dramatic weight loss without dieting followed by bowel obstruction leads to the probable development of colon cancer. High-pitched sounds may be noted with small bowel obstructions.

A nurse inserts a nasogastric (NG) tube for an adult client who has a bowel obstruction. Which actions does the nurse perform correctly? (Select all that apply.) a. Performs hand hygiene and positions the client in high-Fowler's position, with pillows behind the head and shoulders b. Instructs the client to extend the neck against the pillow once the NG tube has reached the oropharynx c. Checks for correct placement by checking the pH of the fluid aspirated from the tube d. Secures the NG tube by taping it to the client's nose and pinning the end to the pillowcase e. Connects the NG tube to intermittent medium suction with an anti-reflux valve on the air vent

A, C, E The client's head should be flexed forward once the NG tube has reached the oropharynx. The NG tube should be secured to the client's gown, not to the pillowcase, because it could become dislodged easily. All the other actions are appropriate.

A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a colon resection. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. "You may experience nausea and vomiting for the first few weeks." b. "Carbonated beverages can help decrease acid reflux from anastomosis sites." c. "Take a stool softener to promote softer stools for ease of defecation." d. "You may return to your normal workout schedule, including weight lifting."

C Clients recovering from a colon resection should take a stool softener as prescribed to keep stools a soft consistency for ease of passage. Nausea and vomiting are symptoms of intestinal obstruction and perforation and should be reported to the provider immediately. The client should be advised to avoid gas-producing foods and carbonated beverages, and avoid lifting heavy objects or straining on defecation.

A nurse assesses a client with a mechanical bowel obstruction who reports intermittent abdominal pain. An hour later the client reports constant abdominal pain. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer intravenous opioid medications. b. Position the client with knees to chest. c. Insert a nasogastric tube for decompression. d. Assess the client's bowel sounds. ANS: D

D A change in the nature and timing of abdominal pain in a client with a bowel obstruction can signal peritonitis or perforation. The nurse should immediately check for rebound tenderness and the absence of bowel sounds. The nurse should not medicate the client until the provider has been notified of the change in his or her condition. The nurse may help the client to the knee-chest position for comfort, but this is not the priority action. The nurse need not insert a nasogastric tube for decompression.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy that was done the day before. The nurse notes that the client has lower abdominal distention accompanied by dullness to percussion over the distended area. Which action should the nurse take? a. Assess the client's heart rate and blood pressure. b. Determine when the client last voided. c. Ask if the client is experiencing flatus. d. Auscultate all quadrants of the client's abdomen.

B Assessment findings indicate that the client may have an over-full bladder. In the immediate postoperative period, the client may experience difficulty voiding due to urinary retention. The nurse should assess when the client last voided. The client's vital signs may be checked after the nurse determines the client's last void. Asking about flatus and auscultating bowel sounds are not related to a hemorrhoidectomy.

A nurse cares for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for proper placement of the tube every 4 hours. b. Flush the tube with water every hour to ensure patency. c. Secure the NG tube to the client's upper lip. d. Disconnect suction when auscultating bowel peristalsis. e. Monitor the client's skin around the tube site for irritation.

A, D, E The nurse should assess for proper placement, tube patency, and output every 4 hours. The nurse should also monitor the skin around the tube for irritation and secure the tube to the client's nose. When auscultating bowel sounds for peristalsis, the nurse should disconnect suction.

A nurse assesses a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which questions should the nurse include in this client's assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. "Which food types cause an exacerbation of symptoms?" b. "Where is your pain and what does it feel like?" c. "Have you lost a significant amount of weight lately?" d. "Are your stools soft, watery, and black in color?" e. "Do you experience nausea associated with defecation?"

A, B, E The nurse should ask the client about factors that may cause exacerbations of symptoms, including food, stress, and anxiety. The nurse should also assess the location, intensity, and quality of the client's pain, and nausea associated with defecation or meals. Clients who have IBS do not usually lose weight and stools are not black in color.

An emergency room nurse assesses a client after a motor vehicle crash and notes ecchymotic areas across the client's lower abdomen. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Measure the client's abdominal girth. b. Assess for abdominal guarding or rigidity. c. Check the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit. d. Obtain the client's complete health history.

B On noticing the ecchymotic areas, the nurse should check to see if abdominal guarding or rigidity is present, because this could indicate major organ injury. The nurse should then notify the provider. Measuring abdominal girth or obtaining a complete health history is not appropriate at this time. Laboratory test results can be checked after assessment for abdominal guarding or rigidity.

A nurse cares for a client who has obstructive jaundice. The client asks, "Why is my skin so itchy?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Bile salts accumulate in the skin and cause the itching." b. "Toxins released from an inflamed gallbladder lead to itching." c. "Itching is caused by the release of calcium into the skin." d. "Itching is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction."

A In obstructive jaundice, the normal flow of bile into the duodenum is blocked, allowing excess bile salts to accumulate on the skin. This leads to itching, or pruritus. The other statements are not accurate.

A nurse cares for a client who presents with tachycardia and prostration related to biliary colic. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Contact the provider immediately. b. Lower the head of the bed. c. Decrease intravenous fluids. d. Ask the client to bear down. e. Administer prescribed opioids.

A, B Clients who are experiencing biliary colic may present with tachycardia, pallor, diaphoresis, prostration, or other signs of shock. The nurse should stay with the client, lower the client's head, and contact the provider or Rapid Response Team for immediate assistance. Treatment for shock usually includes intravenous fluids; therefore, decreasing fluids would be an incorrect intervention. The client's tachycardia is a result of shock, not pain. Performing the vagal maneuver or administering opioids could knock out the client's compensation mechanism.

A nurse assesses a client with cholelithiasis. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as contributors to this client's condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Body mass index of 46 b. Vegetarian diet c. Drinking 4 ounces of red wine nightly d. Pregnant with twins e. History of metabolic syndrome f. Glycosylated hemoglobin level of 15%

A, D, F Obesity, pregnancy, and diabetes are all risk factors for the development of cholelithiasis. A diet low in saturated fats and moderate alcohol intake may decrease the risk. Although metabolic syndrome is a precursor to diabetes, it is not a risk factor for cholelithiasis. The client should be informed of the connection.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a Whipple procedure. Which clinical manifestations alert the nurse to a complication from this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Clay-colored stools b. Substernal chest pain c. Shortness of breath d. Lack of bowel sounds or flatus e. Urine output of 20 mL/6 hr

B, C, D, E Myocardial infarction (chest pain), pulmonary embolism (shortness of breath), adynamic ileus (lack of bowel sounds or flatus), and renal failure (urine output of 20 mL/6 hr) are just some of the complications for which the nurse must assess the client after the Whipple procedure. Clay-colored stools are associated with cholecystitis and are not a complication of a Whipple procedure.

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) after a cholecystectomy. The client states, "When I wake up I am in pain." Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer intravenous morphine while the client sleeps. b. Encourage the client to use the PCA pump upon awakening. c. Contact the provider and request a different analgesic. d. Ask a family member to initiate the PCA pump for the client.

B The nurse should encourage the client to use the PCA pump prior to napping and upon awakening. Administering additional intravenous morphine while the client sleeps places the client at risk for respiratory depression. The nurse should also evaluate dosages received compared with dosages requested and contact the provider if the dose or frequency is not adequate. Only the client should push the pain button on a PCA pump.

A nurse assesses a client who has cholecystitis. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the condition is chronic rather than acute? a. Temperature of 100.1° F (37.8° C) b. Positive Murphy's sign c. Light-colored stools d. Upper abdominal pain after eating

C Jaundice, clay-colored stools, and dark urine are more commonly seen with chronic cholecystitis. The other symptoms are seen equally with both chronic and acute cholecystitis.

After teaching a client who has a history of cholelithiasis, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection made by the client indicates the client clearly understands the dietary teaching? a. Lasagna, tossed salad with Italian dressing, and low-fat milk b. Grilled cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and coffee with cream c. Cream of potato soup, Caesar salad with chicken, and a diet cola d. Roasted chicken breast, baked potato with chives, and orange juice

D Clients with cholelithiasis should avoid foods high in fat and cholesterol, such as whole milk, butter, and fried foods. Lasagna, low-fat milk, grilled cheese, cream, and cream of potato soup all have high levels of fat. The meal with the least amount of fat is the chicken breast dinner.

After teaching a client who is recovering from laparoscopic cholecystectomy surgery, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "Drinking at least 2 liters of water each day is suggested." b. "I will decrease the amount of fatty foods in my diet." c. "Drinking fluids with my meals will increase bloating." d. "I will avoid concentrated sweets and simple carbohydrates."

B After cholecystectomy, clients need a nutritious diet without a lot of excess fat; otherwise a special diet is not recommended for most clients. Good fluid intake is healthy for all people but is not related to the surgery. Drinking fluids between meals helps with dumping syndrome, which is not seen with this procedure. Restriction of sweets is not required.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a Whipple procedure. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Drainage from a fistula b. Absent bowel sounds c. Pain at the incision site d. Nasogastric (NG) tube drainage

A Complications of a Whipple procedure include secretions that drain from a fistula and peritonitis. Absent bowel sounds, pain at the incision site, and NG tube drainage are normal postoperative findings.

A nurse cares for a client who presents with tachycardia and prostration related to biliary colic. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Contact the provider immediately. b. Lower the head of the bed. c. Decrease intravenous fluids. d. Ask the client to bear down. e. Administer prescribed opioids.

A, B Clients who are experiencing biliary colic may present with tachycardia, pallor, diaphoresis, prostration, or other signs of shock. The nurse should stay with the client, lower the client's head, and contact the provider or Rapid Response Team for immediate assistance. Treatment for shock usually includes intravenous fluids; therefore, decreasing fluids would be an incorrect intervention. The client's tachycardia is a result of shock, not pain. Performing the vagal maneuver or administering opioids could knock out the client's compensation mechanism.

The nurse is caring for a client with peptic ulcer disease who reports sudden onset of sharp abdominal pain. On palpation, the client's abdomen is tense and rigid. What action takes priority? a. Administer the prescribed pain medication. b. Notify the health care provider immediately. c. Percuss all four abdominal quadrants. d. Take and document a set of vital signs.

B This client has manifestations of a perforated ulcer, which is an emergency. The priority is to get the client medical attention. The nurse can take a set of vital signs while someone else calls the provider. The nurse should not percuss the abdomen or give pain medication since the client may need to sign consent for surgery.

A client with peptic ulcer disease asks the nurse about taking slippery elm supplements. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Slippery elm has no benefit for this problem." b. "Slippery elm is often used for this disorder." c. "There is no evidence that this will work." d. "You should not take any herbal remedies."

B There are several complementary and alternative medicine regimens that are used for gastritis and peptic ulcer disease. Most have been tested on animals but not humans. Slippery elm is a common supplement used for this disorder.

A client with peptic ulcer disease is in the emergency department and reports the pain has gotten much worse over the last several days. The client's blood pressure when lying down was 122/80 mm Hg and when standing was 98/52 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer ibuprofen (Motrin). b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Start a large-bore IV with normal saline. d. Tell the client to remain lying down.

C This client has orthostatic changes to the blood pressure, indicating fluid volume loss. The nurse should start a large-bore IV with isotonic solution. Ibuprofen will exacerbate the ulcer. The Rapid Response Team is not needed at this point. The client should be put on safety precautions, which includes staying in bed, but this is not the priority.

An older female client has been prescribed esomeprazole (Nexium) for treatment of chronic gastric ulcers. What teaching is particularly important for this client? a. Check with the pharmacist before taking other medications. b. Increase intake of calcium and vitamin D. c. Report any worsening of symptoms to the provider. d. Take the medication as prescribed by the provider.

B All of this advice is appropriate for any client taking this medication. However, long-term use is associated with osteoporosis and osteoporosis-related fractures. This client is already at higher risk for this problem and should be instructed to increase calcium and vitamin D intake. The other options are appropriate for any client taking any medication and are not specific to the use of esomeprazole.

A client with a bleeding gastric ulcer is having a nuclear medicine scan. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess the client for iodine or shellfish allergies. b. Educate the client on the side effects of sedation. c. Inform the client a second scan may be needed. d. Teach the client about bowel preparation for the scan.

C A second scan may be performed in 1 to 2 days to see if interventions have worked. The nuclear medicine scan does not use iodine-containing contrast dye or sedation. There is no required bowel preparation.

A client had an upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage and now has a nasogastric (NG) tube. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Lavaging the tube with ice water b. Performing frequent oral care c. Re-positioning the tube every 4 hours d. Taking and recording vital signs

B Clients with NG tubes need frequent oral care both for comfort and to prevent infection. Lavaging the tube is done by the nurse. Re-positioning the tube, if needed, is also done by the nurse. The UAP can take vital signs, but this is not a comfort measure.

The nurse caring for clients with gastrointestinal disorders should understand that which category best describes the mechanism of action of sucralfate (Carafate)? a. Gastric acid inhibitor b. Histamine receptor blocker c. Mucosal barrier fortifier d. Proton pump inhibitor

C Sucralfate is a mucosal barrier fortifier (protector). It is not a gastric acid inhibitor, a histamine receptor blocker, or a proton pump inhibitor.

An older female client has been prescribed esomeprazole (Nexium) for treatment of chronic gastric ulcers. What teaching is particularly important for this client? a. Check with the pharmacist before taking other medications. b. Increase intake of calcium and vitamin D. c. Report any worsening of symptoms to the provider. d. Take the medication as prescribed by the provider.

B All of this advice is appropriate for any client taking this medication. However, long-term use is associated with osteoporosis and osteoporosis-related fractures. This client is already at higher risk for this problem and should be instructed to increase calcium and vitamin D intake. The other options are appropriate for any client taking any medication and are not specific to the use of esomeprazole.

A client has a pyloric obstruction and reports sudden muscle weakness. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Document the findings in the chart. b. Request an electrocardiogram (ECG). c. Facilitate a serum potassium test. d. Place the client on bedrest.

B Pyloric stenosis can lead to hypokalemia, which is manifested by muscle weakness. The nurse first obtains an ECG because potassium imbalances can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. A potassium level is also warranted, as is placing the client on bedrest for safety. Documentation should be thorough, but none of these actions takes priority over the ECG.

A client is being taught about drug therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection. What assessment by the nurse is most important? a. Alcohol intake of 1 to 2 drinks per week b. Family history of H. pylori infection c. Former smoker still using nicotine patches d. Willingness to adhere to drug therapy

D Treatment for this infection involves either triple or quadruple drug therapy, which may make it difficult for clients to remain adherent. The nurse should assess the client's willingness and ability to follow the regimen. The other assessment findings are not as critical.

A nurse is teaching a client about magnesium hydroxide with aluminum hydroxide (Maalox). What instruction is most appropriate? a. "Aspirin must be avoided." b. "Do not worry about black stools." c. "Report diarrhea to your provider." d. "Take 1 hour before meals."

C Maalox can cause hypermagnesemia, which causes diarrhea, so the client should be taught to report this to the provider. Aspirin is avoided with bismuth sulfate (Pepto-Bismol). Black stools can be caused by Pepto-Bismol. Maalox should be taken after meals.

For which client would the nurse suggest the provider not prescribe misoprostol (Cytotec)? a. Client taking antacids b. Client taking antibiotics c. Client who is pregnant d. Client over 65 years of age

C Misoprostol can cause abortion, so pregnant women should not take this drug. The other clients have no contraindications to taking misoprostol.

The student nurse studying stomach disorders learns that the risk factors for acute gastritis include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. Caffeine c. Corticosteroids d. Fruit juice e. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

A, B, C, E Risk factors for acute gastritis include alcohol, caffeine, corticosteroids, and chronic NSAID use. Fruit juice is not a risk factor, although in some people it does cause distress.

A client has a gastrointestinal hemorrhage and is prescribed two units of packed red blood cells. What actions should the nurse perform prior to hanging the blood? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask a second nurse to double-check the blood. b. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline. c. Prime the IV tubing with dextrose in water. d. Take and record a set of vital signs. e. Teach the client about reaction manifestations.

A, B, D, E Prior to starting a blood transfusion, the nurse asks another nurse to double-check the blood (and client identity), primes the IV tubing with normal saline, takes and records a baseline set of vital signs, and teaches the client about manifestations to report. The IV tubing is not primed with dextrose in water.

A nurse working with a client who has possible gastritis assesses the client's gastrointestinal system. Which findings indicate a chronic condition as opposed to acute gastritis? (Select all that apply.) a. Anorexia b. Dyspepsia c. Intolerance of fatty foods d. Pernicious anemia e. Nausea and vomiting

C, D Intolerance of fatty or spicy foods and pernicious anemia are signs of chronic gastritis. Anorexia and nausea/vomiting can be seen in both conditions. Dyspepsia is seen in acute gastritis.

A nurse is preparing to administer pantoprazole (Protonix) intravenously. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer the drug through a separate IV line. b. Infuse pantoprazole using an IV pump. c. Keep the drug in its original brown bag. d. Take vital signs frequently during infusion. e. Use an in-line IV filter when infusing.

A, B, E